Hello guys,
i need your help in solving mcq's that i will give in this post
actualy these are from the previous exams of pakistan medical and
dental council exam for foreign graduates(doctors who study abroad and
want to be registered in pakistan) i have 700 questions but without
answers so please help me in solving them as i have very limited time
because i have to take the next exam in september.Here are the first
200 mcq's,remaining 500 i will post latter.please cooperate and
participate.
thanx from Feras
1.Regarding the brachial plexus:
a.suprascapular nerve originates from the upper trunk.
b.the divisions lie behind the subclavius.
c.the posterior cord supplies the muscles in the posterior compartment.
d.the cord of the brachial plexus lie lateral to the 1st part of the
axillary artery.
e.lower trunk is likely to be damaged when the neck is suddenly turned
to the other side.

2.The median nerve is damaged at the elbow
a.there is loss of sensation at the tips of all the fingers.
b.opposition is made impossible.
c.adduction of the thumb is impossible.
d.flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is affected.
e.flexion of the wrist is made impossible.

3.Regarding the flexor retinaculum
a.apex of palmar aponeurosis is attached to it.
b.the tenden of flexor carpiradialis lies in a separate tunnel within it.
c.superficial palmar branch of the median nerve lies superficial to it.
d.ulnar nerve passes through the carpel tunnel.
e.abductor brevis partly arrises from it.

4.in the middle cranial fossa
a.anterior pitutary receives venous blood from hypothalamo-hypophysial
portal system.
b.ophthalmic nerve divides into its 3 branches.
c.deep cerebral veins drain into the cavernous sinus.
d.internal carotid artery and occulumotor nerve pierce the rough of
the cavernous sinus together.
e.greater petrosal nerve lies deep to the trigeminal ganglion.

5.regaring the orbit
a.superior oblique becomes a pure depressor when the eye is abducted.
b.in the paralysis of the abducent nerve,diplopia occurs when the eye
is turned to the affected side.
c.inferior oblique originates from the annulus of Zinn.
d.partial ptosis occurs in the paralysis of muller's muscle.
e.in ciliary ganglion destruction,dilated pupils occur.

6.regarding the thoracic part of the trachea
a.bifurcation is at the level of the 4th thoracic vertebra.
b.the right bronchus is in line with it.
c.it is related to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve.
d.has a complete cartilage ring at the bifurcation.
e.lymph nodes are present alone both borders.

7.Apex of the heart
a.lies in the 5th intercostal space.
b.is formed by the left ventricle.
c.is supplied mainly by the right coronary artery.
d.is the site for mitral valve sound.
e.is not covered by lungs.

8.the inguinal canal
a.contains the spermatic cord in the male but only fat in the female.
b.is more oblique in the adult then in the newborn.
c.its suprficial ring is protected by the pyramidalis muscle.
d.is absent in the male if the testis is undescended.
e.the conjoint tendon attached to the pectineal line passes behind the
superficial inguinal ring.

9.regarding the appendix
a.can be surface marked on a line joining the umbilicus to the right
anterior superior iliac spine.
b.taenia coli end at the base of appendix.
c.usualy lies in the paracolic position.
d.veins drain to the middle colic and iliocolic vessels.
e.in situs inversus lies in left iliac fossa.

10.inversion of the foot
a.occurs at the talo-calcaneous and talo-calcaneo-nevicular joints.
b.restricted in plantar flexion.
c.consist of abduction of the fore part of the leg.
d.limited by the resistance of the paroneus muscles.
e.inversion and eversion help in walking on rough surfaces.

11.regarding the cell
a.surface area decreases with increasing cell size.
b.mitochondria are made up of 2 membranes.
c.ribosomes are organelles that are synthesized in the nucleus.
d.basal infolding is seen in cells involved in oin transport.
e.unsaturated fatty acids reduce the fluidicity of plasme membrane.

12.Regarding action potential
a.terminated by efflux of k+
b.strenght diminishes as it travels along the axon.
c.skeletal muscle fibers do not require it for contraction.
d.is of shorter duration in cardiac muscle.
e.non-myelinated fibres conduct impulses at a faster rate then in myelinated.

13.true or false
a.spermiogenesis is a process by which muture sperm cells are made
from spermatids.
b.fertilazation usually occurs in the ampulla of fallopian tubes.
c.during the embryonic peroid risk of congenital defects is increased.
d.primary oocytes are formed after birth until puberty.
e.in the maturation division the 2ndry oocytes receives the majority
of cytoplasm.

14.what are the changes that occur at pubert in both males and females
a.increased muscle mass
b.pubic hair
c.linear growth
d.development of interest in opposite sex
e.menarche.

15.the expected physiological findings of metabolic acidosis are
a.increased excretion of HCo3 in urine.
b.hyperventilation.
c.increased ionized serum Ca++ concentration.
d.increased renal secretion of NH4+
e.shifting of O2 dissociation curved to the left.

16.following are likely to cause an apparent resistance to hormone action
a.antibodies to hormones
b.decrease in the number fo hormone receptors.
c.decrease affinity of hormone receptors.
d.decrease hormone transport proteins.
e.post receptor defect.

17.kidney is the main organ for
a.synthesis of urea
b.synthesis of renin
c.production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
d.synthesis of erythropoietin.
e.synthesis of angiotensinogen.

18.A normal bleeding time and a prolonged whole blood clotting time is
compatible with
a.factor viii deficiency.
b.thrombocytopenia.
c.vit k deficiency
d.liver disease.
e.thrombasthenia

19.A woman who has AB Rh(-) blood group(unsensitized)
a.has agglutinine A in her plasma
b.has agglutinine D in her plasma
c.her father could be O Rh(-)
d.her child could be genotype DD
e.will have to be given RhoGAM after delivering a baby who has Rh(+) blood.

20.Erythropoiesis is stimulated by
a.hypoxia
b.iron deficiency anaemia
c.kidney failure
d.hemorrhage
e.androgens

21.regarding DNA:
a.Uracil is a component of DNA.
b.sugar phosphate bond is a feature of nucleic acid.
c.DNA replication is semi-conservative.
d.purines pair with pyrimidines.
e.complementary nature is necessary for accurate replication of DNA.

22.Gluconeogenesis
a.is an energy consuming process
b.ysing is a gluconeogenic substrate
c.fatty acids are gluconeogenic substrates
d.glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis
e.Metformin acts by decreasing gluconeogenesis

23.True/false
a.increase insulin/glucagon ratio favours ketogenesis
b.ketone bodies are water soluble
c.plasma insulin levels are higher in obese diabetics then in lein diabetics
d.insulin resistance is a common finding in tissue injury
e.brain starts to utilize ketone bodies following a 24 hour fast.

24.in the well fed state
a.the adipose tissue is lipogenic
b.the liver is gluconeogenic
c.the brain uses ketone bodies.
d.insulin/glucagon ratio is low
e.a person has a positive N balance

25.A hypercholesterolaemic patient is correctly advised
a.use gingerly oil or soya bean oil for cooking
b.increase the intake of dark green leafy vegetables and fruits
c.resort the regular physical execise
d.avoid excessive consumption of alcohol
e.increase the intake of eggs

26.regarding pigmentation
a.lipofuscine deposition is associated with aging
b.Neurofibromatosis is associated with hypopipigmentation
c.Haemosiderosis is the deposition of Fe in the liver and spleen
d.bilirubin pigment is derived from haemoglobin
e.pneumoconiosis is caused by the deposition of melainin in lungs

27.Healing in open wounds is associated with
a.granulation tissue formation
b.contraction is involved
c.vit C is necessary for proper wound healing
d.necrotic material is removed by macrophages
e.infection

28.true or false
a.atrophy results in an invariable decrease in the size of organ
b.hyperplasia is a pre-malignant change
c.metaplasia is a process that occurs in epithelial and connective tissues.
d.hyperplasia is irreversible.
e.hypertrophy results in increased cell number

29.true or false regarding neoplasms
a.sarcoma is a malignant epithelial tumor
b.sarcoma commonly metastasize to lymph nodes
c.lymphoma is a benign lymphoid tumor
d.melanoma is a malignant tumor in melanin producing cells of retina
and epidermis
e.benign tumors are commonly charatcterzied by atypical mitotic figures

30.patchy hyperpigmentation is seen in
a.Peutz'-Jeghers syndrome
b.is mild non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c.vitiligo
d.Addison's disease
e.haemochromatosis

31.paracetamol
a.is a strong analgesic
b.is mild non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
c.should not be given to children less then 12 years of age
d.contra-indicated in pregnancy
e.acute liver failure results in overdose

32.regarding the principles of anti-microbial therapy:
a.microbes must be isolated before anti-microbial therapy is started.
b.previous infections of microbes in a community is of no value when
treating a patient
c.when treating a patient with antimicrobials if the patient is
improving it is always due to the antimicrobial therapy
d.samples (swabs or specimens) should normaly be taken before
antimicrobial therapy is started
e.anti-microbial therapy is always,treating microbes with appropriate
anti-microbials.

33.true of false regarding pharmacokenetics
a.plasme elimination half life means the time needed for a 50%
reduction of plasma concentration of a drug
b.a drug with a high first pass metabolism is not given sub-lingually
c.4-5 t1/2 are enough to produce a steady state concentration of a
drug in plasma
d.clearance is the governing factor determining the plasma
concenration of that drug
e.monitoring of plasma concentration of drugs is a useful guide to therapy

34.true or false
a.the generic name generally indicates the category of the drug
b.drugs are taken only when a person is ill.
c.drug induced disease may result in death.
d.effective drugs not used effectively is a cause of treatment failure
e.drug advertisements give balanced and accurate information

35.true/false about organophasphate insecticide poisoning and management
a.retention of urine is a feature
b.pupil size is used to monitor therapy with atropine
c.atropine is effective at reversing effects of MEP.
d.atropine competes with insecticides for receptor occupation.
e.recovery from poisoning is associated with formation of fresh cholinesterase

36.physiologic effects mediated by stimulation of B-adrenoceptors include
a.bronchodilatation
b.peripheral arterial dilation
c.contraction of pregnant uterus
d.glycogenolysis
e.increase of myocardial contractility

37.Anticholinergic drugs are known to give rise to
a.bradycardia
b.miosis
c.difficulty in passing urine
d.bronchconstriction
e.excessive salivation

38.true of false
a.drugs with narrow toxic-therapeutic ratio are more likely to cause
non-dose related adverse drug reactions
b.in renal failure the plasma elimination half-life of drugs which are
excreted by the kidney is prolonged
c.use of drugs in early pregnancy can have teratogenic effects
d.strong analgesics cause analgesia mainly by central action
e.drugs that are highlt water solube pass throught the blood brain barreir

39.adverse effects of penicillamine therapy includes
a.myasthenia gravis
b.Good Pasture's syndrome
c.nephrotic syndrome
d.SLE-like syndrome
e.aplastic anaemia

40.the following drugs are nephrotoxic
a.methicillin
b.allopurinol
c.rifampicin
d.cimetidine
e.phenytoin

41.true of false
a.the frequency distribution of nearly all biological measurments show
a bell shaped curve
b.about 50% of the observations in a normal distribution have value
higher then the median
c."root-mean-square-deviation" is another name for standard deviation
d.the mean value represents the central tendency of the data
e.in a normal distribution about 49.5% of the observations will fall
between mean value to mean value plus 3SD.

42.in a normal Gaussian distribution
a.the frequency distribution curve is nearly or completely symmetrical
b.the mode,mean and the median are nearly or actually the same
c.the mean plus 2SD includes only about 68.3% of observations
d.the higher the standard deviation,the taller the curve
e.about 70% of the subjects have values above the median in a "normal
distribution"

43.Regarding standard deviaion:
a.is necessary to calculate the co-efficient of variation.
b.is a measure of central tendency in series.
c.can be calculated using the root mean square deviation method
d.is essential is computing the ' r ' value
e.is nearly equal in a "normal distribution"

44.following are the hazzards of polluted water
a.Diarrhoeal illnesses
b.viral hepatitis A and B
c.Weil's disease
r.spread of malaria
e.worm infestation

45.Following are the effective measures to control smoking
a.Health education
b.ban of cigarettes advertisement
c.restriction of smoking in public places
d.imprisonment of somkers
e.increase in prize of cigarettes.

46.Following are food borne diseases
a.Typhoid fever
b.Brucellosis
c.Bovine-tuberculosis
d.cholera
e.AIDS

47.Following are communicable diseases:
a.Measles
b.HIV
c.Scabies
d.Ischemic heart disease.
e.Tuberculosis.

48.Following are primary preventive measures
a.Health education about diseases
b.Vaccination
c.Good nuitrition and enviromental senitation
d.regular medical check ups
e.early diagnosis and prompt treatment

49.Following measures improve mental health in society:
a.Recreational facilities
b.noise control
c.festivals
d.holidays
e.enviromental hygiene

50.Following measures control food borne diseases
a.control of flies
b.hand washing
c.boiling water
d.washing of food before cooking
e.use of tin food

51.Triad of protienuria,oedema and BP in pregnancy is seen in
a.Hydatidiform mole
b.pre-eclampsis
c.ectopic pregnancy
d.Abruptio placentae.
e.renal failure

52.cause of acute salpingitis includes:
a.chlamydia trachomatis
b.streptococcus faecalis
c.E.coli
d.Neisseria gonorrhoea
e.Trichomonas vaginalis

53.characteristic featues of procidentia include:
a.painful
b.cervical ulcer
c.stress incontinence
d.Dyspareunia
e.pruritus

54.Complications of Diabetes Mellitus in pregnancy
a.Multiple pregnancy
b.macrosomia
c.IUGR
d.pregnancy induced hypertension
e.oligohydramnios

55.Polyhydramnios is seen in
a.Multiple pregnancy
b.Myelocele
c.Duodenal atresia.
d.Rh-issoimmunization
e.Renal agenesis(Pottor's syndrome)

56.smoking during pregnancy:
a.leads to low birth weight baby
b.associated with abortion
c.may cause congenital abnormalities.
d.associated with higher incidence of respiratory distress syndrome.
e.should be forbidden

57.Face presentation is associated with the following:
a.Anencephaly
b.polyhydramnios
c.Mentoposterior position
d.deflexed head
e.twins

58.the following are recognised causes of a transverse lie:
a.Bicornuate uterus
b.placenta previa
c.oligohydramnios
d.Twins
e.Contarcted pelvis

59.Vulval dystrophy is:
a.Pre-malignant condition
b.seen in Post-menopausal age commonly
c.assiciated with Pruritus
d.requires histological diagnosis.
e.Extends to perineum

60.In a 30 year old woman who has regular cycles of 28 days and has
bleeding for 8days the recognised causes may include:
a.Endometriosis
b.Fibroids
c.Anorexia nervosa
d.Anovulatory cycles
e.Cystic glandular hyperplasia

61.Gonococci affects the following structures:
a.vagina
b.Tubes
c.cervix
d.rectum in female
e.urethra

62.uterine anomalies cause;
a.pre-mature labour
b.Prolonged labour
c.Dystocia.
d.abortion
e.post-partum haemorrhage

63.Salbutamol given to mother for prolongation of pregnancy causes:
a.Bradycardia
b.Sudden intra-uterine death
c.vasodilation
d.hypoglycemia
e.Dysfunctional labour

64.Progesterone only pill:
a.can be safely given to a woman above 40 years
b.usually causes ammenorrhoea
c.usually causes menorrhagia
d.causes endometrial hyperplasia
e.associated with endometrail carcinoma when given to a post-menopausal female

65.Contra-indication for IUCD:
a.submucosal fibroid
b.intra-uterine infection
c.Pregnancy
d.Primipara
e.valvular heart disease

66.Carcinoma of cervix:
a.more common in unmarried females
b.Dyspareunia is the commonest symptom
c.common in those with multiple partners
e.Cervical erosion is a pre-malignant condition

67.in Pre-eclampsis with DIC:
a.PT and APTT are prolonged
b.there is a thrombocytopenia.
c.Fibrinogen degradation products are present in plasma
d.subsides after delivery
e.can be treated with ant-coagulants.

68.Before application of ventouse the following should be fullfilled:
a.Membranes should be intact.
b.Unengaged head
c.Fetal should be alive
d.cervix should be fully dilated.
e.Bladder should be empty.

69.Incidence of face presentation is increased in:
a.Prematurity
b.Android pelvis
c.Anencephaly
d.Tumor of fetal neck muscles
e.Twin pregnancy

70.The following are true of hydatidiform mole
a.>20% develop choriocarcinoma.
b.HCG levels are high.
c.pregnancy should be avoided for 2 years.
d.should be removed with caesarean section
e.chemotherapy is given to the patient following evecuation.

71.Stress incontinence is recognised to occur in:
a.previous pelvic surgery
b.Cystocele
c.Multiparity
d.Uterovaginal fistula
e.Pelvic tumor

72.recognized cayses of pruvitus valvae include:
a.Lichen sclerosis et atrophcus.
b.Pediculosis pubis
c.Moniliasis
d.Trichomonas vaginalis
e.uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

73.Bishop's score is based on:
a.cervical dilatation
b.cervical softening
c.length of cervix
d.rupture of membranes
e.Engagment of head

74.in a well flexed head:
a.posterior fontanelle is palpable
b.diameter of engagment is 9.5 cm
c.anterior fontanelle is palpable
d.Coronal suture is felt
e.is ideal for vaginal delivery

75.Secondary post-partum haemorrhage is due to:
a.Uterine abnormality
b.Circumvallate placenta
c.Retained placenta
d.endometritis
e.failed lactation

76.in gynecological surgery:
a.a total hysterectomy means removal of uterus,cervix,both tubes and
both ovaries.
b.The Manchester type repair operation includes anterior colporrhaphy
and amputatuon of cervix
c.Ventrosuspension of the uterus is an opration performed to antevert the uterus
d.A wertheim's hysterectomy includes complete vaginectomy.
e.An ovarain cystectomy is the removal of an ovary containing a cyst.

77.The physiological effects of endogenous oxytocin include:
a.relaxation of vascular smooth muscles
b.initiation of milk production
c.an anti-diuretic effect
d.stimulation of uterine contraction
e.hypotension

78.External cephalic version should not be attempted:
a.after antepartum haemorrhage.
b.after 36 weeks of pregnancy
c.when the uterus is bicornuate
d.if there is a multiple pregnancy
e.if the patient has hypertention

79.in a breech presentation:
a.the main danger to the fetus during delivery is from prolapse of the
umbilical caord.
b.during delivery episiotomy is not necessary
c.early pre-term labour is the commonest cause
d.A complete breech has extended legs.
e.Spontaneous version occurs in 20 percent of mothers by the 34th week
of pregnancy

80.During pregnancy the following are normaly elevated:
a.Blood urea
b.the need for iron
c.heart rate
d.blood pressure
e.protein content of urine.

81.the following statements are true:
a.intermittent glycosuria is one of the metabolic changes occuring
during pregnancy.
b.The Hegar;s sign is predictable at 6 weeks of pregnancy.
c.The Goodell's sign of pregnancy is vulvo-vaginal-cervical softening.
d.identical twins are always of the same sex.
e.the administration of oxytoxin after delivery prevents haemorrhage.

82.The clinical features of PEM include:
a.marked muscle wasting and abdominal distension is marasmus.
b.weight loss more then growth retardation in marasmus.
c.hepatic cirrhosis and hypoproteinaemic oedema in Kwashiorkor.
d.Desquamate dermatosis,stomatitis and anorexia in marasmus.
e.Zn defeciency in Kwashiorkor.

83.in treatment and prevention of severe protein energy malnuitrition(PEM)
a.mortality rates are around 20 % even in hospitalized patients.
b.Correction of fluid and electrolyte balance is vital.
c.restoration of calorie and protein intake can worsen the oedema.
d.fatty liver leads to cirrhosis if calorie intake remains poor.
e.childhood mortality rates in developing countries could be halved vy
the adoption of breast feeding,oral rehydration,growth
rehydration,growth monitoring and immunization.

84.Characteristic features of Rickets inclue:
a.delayed motor milestones and dental eruption
b.Epiphyseal expansion of the lower radius on x-ray
c.Carnio-tabes and epiphyseal swelling of the ribs
d.Pectus excavatum and Harisons sulci.
e.Hypophosphataemia due to secondr hyperparathyroidism.

85.bone growth is retarded in
a.Cretinism
b.Scurvy
c.Rickets
d.Malignancy
e.Down's syndrome

86.Major criteria for rheumatic fever diagnosis include
a.Carditis
b.erythema nodosum
c.Chorea
d.Arthralgia
e.raised ESR

87.Spina bifida is associated with
a.sacral lipoma
b.post anal dimple
c.fistula in ano
d.Pilonidal sinus
e.meningocele

88.Arnold chiara malformation can cause
a.optic atrophy
b.mental retardation.
c.ocular palsies
d.flaccid paralysis of limbs
e.Hydrocephalus

89.complications of Measles include
a.Otitis Media
b.Giant cell pneumonia
c.sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
d.arthritis
e.vit A deficiency

90.sequele of meningitis includes:
a.mental retardation
b.cranial nerve palsies
c.hydrocephalus
d.cerebral palsy
e.chronis diarrhoea

91.Features of Still's disease are:
a.positive rheumatoid factor
b.generalized lymphadenopathy
c.maculo-papular rash
d.cataract
e.Splenomegely

92.UTI in children
a.Proteus is the commonest organism
b.Vesico-ureteric reflux is common.
c.single episode of infection is enough to investigate in detail
d.gentamicin is the drug of choice
e.repeated infections are associated with genito-urinary anomalies.

93.in a boy of 15 ,causes of a combination of ataxia,involuntary
movements and hepatomegely would include:
a.Huntington's chorea
b.Haemochromatosis
c.Wilson's disease
d.ataxia telangiectasia
e.polycystic disease

94.in a neonate
a.a high Apgar score indicates asphyxia
b.hypoglycemia is a complication in small for date babies.
c.the administartion of phenothiazines to the mother in the later
weeks of pregnancy may cause jaundice.
d.respiratory Distress syndrome due to hyaline membrane disease is
associated with diminished surfactant level.
e.Phenylketonuria can be diagnosed within 24 hours of birth.

95.Recognised features of pyloric obstruction in infants include
a.metabolic acidosis
b.diarrhoea
c.projectile vomiting within 30 minutes of feeds
d.oliguria
e.visible gastric peristalsis in the epigastrium

96.Features of Mumps in childhood include:
a.fever,malaise and parotitis
b.hearing loss
c.Orchitis leading to infertility
d.Meningitis
e.Lymphopenia

97.A child presenting with tuberculosis meningitis
a.is likely to have been ill for at least 2 weeks
b.should be notified to the enviromental health officer
c.may incur permanent brain damage.
d.will have raised levels of protein and white cells in the CSF.
e.may have a normal chest x-ray.

98.Infections,if contracted during pregnancy,carry on important risk
of producing a mentaly defected child,are:
a.Mumps
b.hepatitis
c.Toxoplasmosis
d.rubella
e.Cytomegalovirus

99.Weaning food should:
a.be introduced at the age of 1 year
b.be given in addition to breast milk.
c.have a high energy density.
d.have a high fibre content.
e.be free of added sugar and salt.

100.human milk:
a.has a higher protein content then cow's milk.
b.has a lower methionine to cystein ratio then cow's milk.
c.has a lower calcium content then cow's milk.
d.has a lower lactose concentration then cow's milk.
e.has a higher polyunsaturated fat content then cow's milk

101.Regarding the Axilla:
a.the trunks of the brachial plexus are bind to clavicle.
b.the axillary vein ends at the lower border of pectoralis major.
c.The pectoral lymph nodes are related to the lateral thoracic artery.
d.the long thoracic nerve runs on the medial wall.
e.the clavicle is anterior boundary of the apex of axilla.

102.regarding the brachial artery:
a.is a muscular artery
b.divides opposite the neck of the radius.
c.can be compressed laterally in its upper 1/3 against the humerus.
d.The median nerve crosses it from the lateral to the medial side.
e.is medial to the biceps tendon in the cubital fossa.

103.in the cubital fossa:
a.floor is made up of the supinator and the brachialis muscle.
b.the median nerve lies medial to the biceps tendon.
c.the basilic vein lies deep to the biciptal aponeurosis.
d.the ulnar head of the pronator teres seprates the median nerve from
the ulnar artery.
e.the common interosseus artery is a branch of radial artery.

104.true or false
a.the cervical pleura extends upto the level of the neck of the first rib.
b.the left pleural cavity extends posterior to the upper pole of the
left kidney.
c.the most dependant part of the pleural cavity is the
costodiaphragmatic recess.
d.pain in the peripheral part of the diaphragmatic pleura is referred
to the tip of the shoulder.
e.parietal pleura is supplied by autonomic nerves.

105.true or false regarding glossopharyngeal nerve :
a.comes out between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
b.runs immediately external to the tonsillor fossa.
c.supplies vallate papillae.
d.supplies the interior(posterior) surface of the epiglottis.
e.is immediately medial to the stylopharyngeus.

106.Regarding vocal cords:
a.is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
b.the space between it and the vestibular fold is called the sinus of
the larynx.
c.vocal cords have no muscles in them.
d.are stretched between aretenoid cartilage and the thyroid lamina.
e.are in abducted state in paralysis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

107.Regarding the stomach:
a.is seprated from the left kidney by the cavity of the lesser sac.
b.pylorus is mobile.
c.fundus lies at the level of the 5th rib in the mid-clavicular line.
d.omental bursa lies between the stomach and the spleen.
e.in congenital pyloric stenosis pylorous is constricted by fibrous band.

108.Regrading the pancrease:
a.lies across the 3rd lumbar vertebrae.
b.has the commencement of the portal vein behind its neck.
c.its tail reaches the spleen through the lienorenal ligament.
d.Omental bursa seprates it from the stomach.
e.the head is in intimate contact with the second part of the duodenum.

109.Femoral canal:
a.medial border is the free border of the lacunar ligament.
b.communicates with the peritoneal cavity.
c.Saphenous opening is inferior to it.
d.lies in the intermediate compartment of the femoral sheath.
e.Femoral hernia is common in women then in men.

110.Regarding hernia:
a.the sac of the oblique inguinal hernia is formed by peritoneum.
b.Both direct and indirect inguinal hernia pass through the
superficial inguinal ring.
c.in females femoral hernia is commoner then inguinal hernia.
d.A strangulated hernia lacks cough impulse.
e.in rolling type of hiatus hernia the fundus of the stomach forms the
content of hernia.

111.True or false
a.an infant has a higher proportion of water then a 40 year old adult
in its body.
b.a woman has a higher amount of water then a man of the same age and weight.
c.total body water can be calculated by dye dilution method.
d.about 80% of body water is intracellular.
e.about 50% of ECF is in blood.

112.Na+ / K+ ATP ase :
a.does not need ATP
b.is inhibited by Ouabin.
c.increases K+ inside the cell.
d.is involved in the regulation of cell volume and pressure.
e.produces net movement of positive charge out of the cell.

113.The first line of defences are:
a.lysozymes in tears
b.Complement system
c.IgM
d.cilia in the epithelium.
e.normal microbial flora.

114.chrismas disease differs from classical haemophilia A in that in
Christmas disease:
a.bleeding time increases.
b.prothrombin time increases.
c.carried by an X-linked gene.
d.produces platelets with inferior quality.
e.can be cured by giving a healthy person's serum

115.in oedema
a.pitting on pressure is the earliest sign.
b.severe bilateral oedema is common in normal pregnanicies.
c.Albumin deficiency contributes to it.
d.Lymphatic blockage is a cause of localised oedema.
e.fluid accumulates in the dependent region.

116.LH
a.ia a glycoprotein
b.is produced by hypothalamus.
c.is reqquired for ovulation.
d.concentration is increased after menopause.
e.stimualates inhibin synthesis.

117.sertoli cells secrete
a.testosterone
b.inhibin
c.Androgen binding protein(ABP)
d.Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS)
e.FSH
f.Estrogen

118.profuse vomiting causes
a.increased output of water in urine
b.hyperkalemia
c.increased intracellular Cl concentration
d.tetani or latent tetani.
e.increased titrable acidity in urine.

119.expected features of a partially compensated metabolis acidosis
a.increased arterial PCO2
b.increased plasma HCO3 concentration
c.Hypokalaemia
d.increased blood H+ concentration
e.increased titrable H+ concentration in urine.

120.true or false
a.50% of the filtered glucose is absorbed by the loop of Henle.
b.Na+ dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is required to absorb
glucose in the kidney
c.all the nephrons have the same glucose transport maximum.
d.reduction in renal glucose reabsorption causes a rise in urine volume.
e.in renal glycosuria threshold for glucose reabsorption is decreased.

121.glycosylated heamoglobin (HB iac)
a.represents the percentage of haemoglobin glycosylated with glucose.
b.determination requires a fasting sample of blood
c.is synthesizes in the liver.
d.levels are not affected by oral hypoglycemic agents.
e.is a good index of glucose homeostasis during the preceding 4-6 weeks.

122.in chronic alchoholism:
a.gluconeogenesis is increased.
b.plasma free fatty acid levels are elevated.
c.hyperglycemia is a common feature.
d.the oxidation of fatty acids in the liver is increased by high NADH
/ NAD ratio.
e.excess TG levels are deposited in the liver.

123.essential fatty acids are
a.Oleic and arachidonic acid
b.precursors of prostaglandin biosynthesis.
c.components of phospholipids.
d.found in vegetable oil.
e.are essentail for cholesterol biosynthesis.

124.Ketone bodies
a.are produced during starvation
b.oxidized by the red blood cells to obtain energy
c.used by the lactating mammary gland to synthesize milk fats.
d.transported as lipoproteins
e.are oxidized via acetyl CoA.

125.during prolonged fasting:
a.hormone sensitive triglyceride lipase is activated
b.hepatic carnitine acyl transferase is inhibited.
c.hepatic acetyl CoA carboxylase activity is increased.
d.blood glucose level is maintained by glycogenolysis in the liver.
e.ketone bodies are utilized by the brain.

126.benign tumors differ from malignant tumors:
a.malignant tumors show abnormal mitosis.
b.benign tumors have no metastases.
c.malignant tumors have haemorrhages and necrosis.
d.benign tumors do not show mitotic figures.
e.benign tumors are always well circumscribed.

127.True / false regarding chronic inflammation :
a.neutrophil is the characteristic cell of chronic inflammation.
b.tissue destruction,repair and inflamation occur at the same time.
c.the vascular phenomenon is less prominent then in acute inflammation.
d.Epitheloid histiocytes release chemical mediators.
e.the continued presence of the injurious agents cause chronic inflammation.

128.Regarding cellular degeneration and necrosis
a.cellular degeneration is reversible.
b.function of cells is lost in necrosis
c.cell degeneration shows nuclear karyorrhexis
d.Calcification can occur in degenerate tissue
e.Apoptosis is an example of cell degeneration.

129.fatty change in liver is seen in :
a.pregnancy
b.chronic alcoholism
c.congestive cardiac failure
d.body mass index greater then 30.
e.chronic liver disease

130.Tobacoo smoking increases the risk of :
a.Oro-pharyngeal carcinoma
b.lung cancer
c.laryngeal cancer
d.carcinoma of bladder
e.ulcerative colitis and crohn's disease

131.True of False :
a.pharmacokinetics is absorption,distribution and elimination of drugs.
b.pharmacodynamics is the mechanism of drug action.
c.loading dose is directly proportional to the volume of distribution.
d.in general, drugs that are highly water soluble have large volume of
distribution.
e.Steady state of a drug is achieved when the rate of drug elimination
equals the rate of administartion.

132.Drugs causing bone marrow failure includes:
a.Methotrexate
b.Chloramphenicole.
c.Azathioprine
d.Carbamezepine
e.Clozapine

133.In chronic renal failure the doses of the following drugs must be reduced:
a.Streptomycin
b.Frusemide
c.Digoxin
d.Erythromycin
e.Procainamide

134.The following drugs are used in treating ventricular tachycardia
a.lignocaine
b.Amiodarone
c.Isoprenaline
d.Procainamide
e.Adenosine

135.Cholestatic jaundice is caused by
a.Chlorpromazine
b.Halothane.
c.Isoniazid
d.Oral contraceptives
e.Acetaminophen

136.The use of oral antibiotics to sterilize the bowel can result in
a.Diarrhoea
b.Fulminant entero-colitis
c.fungal infection of the bowel
d.thrombocytopenia
e.iron deficiency anaemia

137.The following are recognized side effects of Aspirin
a.Tinnitus
b.Deafness
c.Mental confusion.
d.Bronchospasm
e.Thrombocytopenia

138.Haematological changes due to rugs include
a.decreased coagulability of the blood due to aspirin.
b.polycythemia due to methy dopa.
c.Methaemoglobinaemia due to phenacetin
d.Marrow aplasia due to chloramphenicol
e.Haemolytic anemia due to digoxin.

139.chemoprophylaxis is given;
a.to prevent recurrent attacks of rheumatic fever
b.to prevent recurrence of acute glomerulonephritis.
c.in epidemics of meningococcal meningitis.
d.to prevevnt bacterial endocarditis after dental procedures.
e.to prevent gas gangrene after mid-thigh amputation.

140.Allergic reaction to penicillin :
a.may take the form of anaphylatic shoch which can be fatal
b.in an individual indicates that a cephalosporin may safely be given.
c.can be relied on to disappear spontaneously with passage of time.
d.in healthy people should always be managed by an attempt to desensitize.
e.may be predicted by testing for specific IgE antibodies in the
patient's plasma.

141.in a normal distribution :
a.the smaller the standard deviation,the flatter the curve.
b.about 50% of the subjects have values above the mode.
c.standard error of the mean can be calculated using SD and 'n'
(number in the sample)
d.higher the value of n.the SD also becomes higher in a given population.
e.99% of the subjects fall within the mean plus 2SD limits.

142.Following are true / false regarding the correlation coefficient (r) value :
a.it can have a value of +2.8
b.two sets of data are required to calculate the 'r' value.
c.'r' value of -0.95 indicates a higher correlation.
d.t-table is used to find the statistical significance of the r-value.
e.sophisticated computer programmes are necessary for the calculation
of r value.

143.True or false;
a.'P' value of more then 0.05 indicates a significant difference
b.'r' value of 0.9 indicates a high correlation
c.'t' test is done to estimate the 'p' value
d.'r' value of 0.01 indicates a high correlation
e.'p' value of less then 0.01 indicates a highly significant difference.

144.Following are the hazzards of the polluted air
a.primary lung cancer
b.skin cancers
c.Cataracts
d.Anaemia
e.retarded growth of plants

145.Following are the effective measures to control an infectious disease
a.active and passive immunization
b.chemoprophlaxis
c.screening of blood before transfusion
d.vector control
e.notification to health authorities

146.Following are the notifiable diseases
a.Typhoid
b.malaria
c.myocardial infarction
d.acute flaccid paralysis
e.acute watery diarrhoea

147.Following occupational hazards are correctly paired
a.X-ray technitions-skin cancers
b.Coal miners-lung cancer
c.rubber industry-bladder cancer
d.doctors and nurses-infectious diseases
e.farmers-leptospirosis

148.Following are health promoting activites
a.regular sexual intercourse
b.smoking
c.moderate alcohol consumption
d.taking a balanced diet
e.regular exercise

149.WHO programme for the prevention of protein-energy malnuitrition
has the following components
a.growth monitoring
b.oral rehydration of diarrhoea
c.breast feeding alone till 6 months
d.immunization
e.family planing

150.Following are non-communicable diseases
a.Diabetes
b.Leprosy
c.Tuberculosis
d.ischemic heart diseases
e.Obesity

151.The following are features of eclampsia
a.laryngeal spasm
b.disseminated intra-vascular coagulation
c.Generalized tonic-clonic fits
d.elevated liver enzymes,low platelets and haemolysis.
e.Cerebral infarction

152.Oligohydramnios may result from
a.Haemangioma of the placenta
b.pregnancy induced hypertension
c.fetal renal agenies
d.post-maturity
e.Diabetes mellitus

153.Carcinoma of the endometrium is associated with
a.heavy smoking
b.oral contraceptive pills
c.early menarrche and late menopause
d.IUCD users
e.endometriosis

154.characteristic features of rupture of the uterus in labour include
a.signs of intra0peritoneal bleeding
b.vaginal haemorrhage
c.violent uterine contractions
d.a fall in systolic blood pressure
e.respiratory distress

155.Recognized sequele of salphingitis include:
a.ectopic pregnancy
b.infertility
c.endometriosis
d.tubo-ovarian abscess
e.chronic pelvic pain

156.presenting features of chorionic carcinoma inclue
a.Haematemesis
b.haemoptysis
c.vaginal bleeding
d.haematoperitoneum
e.nodules on CXR

157.Abruptio placentae is characterized by
a.a high presenting part
b.sudden painful vaginal bleeding
c.a tender uterus
d.presence of fetal heart sound
e.evidence of maternal shock

158.the following diameters of the fetal skull average more then 9.5
cm at term :
a.sub-occipito-bregmatic
b.occipito-frontal
c.sub-mento-bregmatic
d.biparietal
e.sub-mento vertical

159.in labour normal uterine contractions
a.increased placental blood flow
b.spread from muscle fibre to fibre directly as in a syncytium
c.originate at the utero-tubal junction
d.causes rise of the intra-amniotic pressure
e.are reduced by oxytocin administration

160.Following drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy:
a.Tetracyclines
b.Quinolones
c.primaquine
d.Metronidazole
e.paracetamol

161.The following are common symptoms and signs of pre-menstrual
tension syndrome
a.insomnia
b.elevation of mood
c.abdominal swelling
d.mastalgia
e.headache and flushing

162.Epimenorrhoea may be due to
a.intra-uterine contraceptives
b.hyperthyroidism
c.hypothyroidism
d.uterine polyp
e.polycystic ovary syndrome

163.The clinical features of acute salpingits include
a.a temprature of 104* F
b.cervical excitation
c.concentrated urine
d.vaginal discharge
e.pain in either iliac fossae

164.uterine fibroids
a.are richly supplied with blood vessels
b.are the commonest sites for sarcoma of the uterus
c.may be symptomless even when very large
d.may give rise to discomfort,never pain
e.may give rise to digestive disturbances such as
indigestion,flatulance and diarrhoea.

165.Ethinylestradiol may cause
a.nausea and vomitin
b.jaundice
c.mood elevation
d.sodium retention
e.hypertension

166.recognized cause(s) of post-menopausal bleeding include
a.papilloma of the bladder
b.senila vaginits
c.urethral carbuncle
d.carcinoma of the uterus
e.chronic liver disease

167.definite indications for a surgical repair of a prolapsed uterus include
a.to preserve the fertility
b.patient's choice
c.ulceration of the prolapsed part
d.associated difficulty with urination and defecation
e.a poor fitting pessary

168.Regarding abnormal discharge from the nipple the following
associations are correct
a.a clear serous discharge-underlying carcinoma
b.a blood stained discharge-duct papilloma
c.a black dischare-duct ectasia
d.a green discharge-lactation
e.a straw colour discharge-duct ectasia

169.Rh-isoimmunization can be prevented by
a.injecting RhoGAM (Rh isoimmunoglobulin) to susceptile mothers at child birth.
b.Rh-negative females marrying Rh-negative male
c.avoiding a 2nd pregnancy
d.determining the blood groups of all mothers
e.delivery only by Caesarean section

170.External cephalic version is contra-indicated in;
a.hypertention
bhistory of APH
c.multiple pregnancy
d.previous LSCS
e.fully flexed breech

171.Anencephaly is associated with
a.hydramnios
b.post maturity
c.pre maturity
d.face presentation
e.follic acid deficiency in mother

172.Sheehan's syndrome is characterized by
a.pigmentation of oral cavity.
b.hypothyroidism.
c.galactorrhoea
d.amenorrhoea
e.breast atrophy

173.endometriosis
a.follows ectopic pregnency
b.GnRH analogues are effective treatment.
c.symptoms are proportional to the grade
d.chocolate cysts are seen at laparoscopy
e.is a leading cause of infertility

174.Endometrial carcinoma
a.causes post-menopausal bleeding
b.appears in an older age group then cervical CA.
c.is usually squamous cell in type
d.is more common then CA cervix
e.is a major cause of menorrhagia

175.a cervical smear can diagnose
a.endometrial tuberculosis
b.CIN II.
c.trichomonas infection.
d.Herpes simplx infection
e.pregnancy

176.Pre-eclampsia is associated with
a.Multiparity
b.Hydatidiform mole
c.Proteinuria of 3mg / 24 hours
d.Multiple pregnancy
e.Diabetes mellitus

177.regarding ectopic pregnancy
a.may progress to to term
b.follows pelvic inflammatory disease
c.incidence is higher in IUCD users
d.can be managed medically
e.if ruptures carries high mortality

178.Hormone replacement therapy
a.is contra-indicated in hypertensives
b.is associated with CA breast and endometrium
c.reduces risk of coronary artery disease
d.carries more risks then benefits
e.keeps a women's beauty after menopause

179.Recognized causes of primary ammonorrhoea include
a.endometriosis
b.congenital adrenal hyperplasia
c.Turner's syndrome
d.Gluten enteropathy
e.Craniopharyngiomas

180.The typical features of menopause include
a.decreased plasma FSH and LH
b.Hirsutism
c.bone fractures due to osteoporosis
d.superficial dyspareunia
e.age at onset 45-55 years

181.Recognized causes of short stature in childhood include
a.Kleinfelter syndrome
b.Turner's syndrome
c.Crushing's syndrome
d.Emotional deprivation
e.down's syndrome

182.In congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
a.symptoms usualy date from birth
b.females are affected more then males
c.the projectile vomitus is bile-stained
d.operation can safely be deferred until the infant is rehydrated
e.a barium meal is necessary for diagnosis

183.Rectal bleeding in infants
a.is most commonly caused by anal fissure
b.is often due to rectal polyps
c.when caused by multiple rectal polyps is frequently associated with malignancy
d.may be an indication of haemorrhagic disease of the new born.
e.may be due to feeding at cracked nipples (ingestion of mother's blood)

184.The following vaccines are cultured in eggs
a.Small pox
b.Rubella
c.yellow fever
d.Polio [ Sabin]
e.Poli [salk]

185.features favoring a diagnosis of acute appendicits in a 5 year old
boy with pain in Right Iliac fossa include :
a.pain left in right iliac fossa on pressing on the left iliac fossa
b.preceding umbilical pain
c.more then ten white cells per high power field in the urine
d.Severe diarrhoea
e.bronchial breathing at the right lung base

186.Pre-mature babies have the following risks
a.respiratory distress syndrome
b.hypothermia
c.Kernicterus
d.sudden infant death syndrome
e.hypoglycemia

187.Regarding petit mal epilapse in childhood
a.may be treated with sodium valproate
b.usually improves spontaneously
c.gives a characteristic EEG
d.can be precipitated by hyperventilation
e.is associated with developmental problems

188.VSD is associated with
a.Atrial fibrillation
b.sub-acute bacterial endocanditis
c.Down's syndrome
d.central cyanosis
e.wide fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound

189.Fallot's tetralogy
a.is most common congenital heart disease
b.may present with syncope and squatting attacks
c.is complicated by abscess formation
d.is not always associated with cyanosis
e.a small boot-shaped heart on chest x-ray is characteristic.

190.rash in chicken pox
a.affects the trunk more then limbs
b.affects oral mucosa
c.uniformly vesicular
d.associated with pruritus
e.prone to bacterial infection

191.True or false regarding haemolytic uremic syndrome
a.caused by gastrointestinal infection with verocytotoxin producing
E.coli 0157 : H7
b.it follows a prodrome of bloody diarrhoea
c.clotting is normal
d.thrombocytopenia is a feature
e.can progress to chronic renal failure

192.regarding congenital toxoplasmosis
a.Macrocephaly is a feature
b.intra-cerebral calcification may occur.
c.occuring in first trimester may result in abortion
d.posterior uveitis is a late complication
e.may present as cyanotic heart disease.

193.APGAR score includes
a.heart rate
b.body colour
c.muscle tone
d.Moro's reflex
e.weight of the baby

194.Foetal alcohol syndrome
a.is caused by father being an alcoholic
b.may be suspected in hyperactive neonates
c.cardiac defects are seen in uptp 70% of neonates
d.facial appearance of the neonate is characteristic.
e.Diazepam may be required in the initail management

195.An 8 year old boy presents with dysuria and frequency
a.Aminoglycosides should be given
b.Ultra-sound of the abdomen must be done
c.extensive investigations to rule out a urinary anomaly are required
d.Kidneys are at risk of scarring
e.should be circumsized if not already done

196.Features of acute rheumatuc fever
a.a recent history of sore throat
b.Migrating polyarthritis
c.Carey coomb's murmur
d.Oto-toxicity
e.prolonged PR interval on ECG

197.Malnuitrition can be measured by
a.Triceps skin fold thickness
b.Serum albumin
c.Mid-arm circumference
d.plasme glucose
e.BMI

198.clinical features of primary hypothyroidism in childhood include
a.malabsorption with diarrhoea
b.Precocious puberty
c.retardation of growth and sexual development
d.Epiphyseal dysgenesis on bone x-ray
e.permanent mental retardation

199.in childhood growth hormone deficiency
a.panhypopituitarism is a typical finding
b.most patients have craniopharyngioma
c.a genetic deficiency of GH-releasing factor is common
d.Delayed bone maturation is a characteristic feature
e.treatment with human GH produces precocious puberty

200.Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is typically associated with
a.atrophy of the Leydig cells
b.Klinefelter's syndrome
c.isolated GnRH deficiency
d.total absence of pubic hair if pre-pubertal in onset
e.Growth retardation if pre-pubertal in onset.